I Hate Dialysis Message Board

Off-Topic => Off-Topic: Talk about anything you want. => Topic started by: cath-hater on June 27, 2011, 12:16:52 AM

Title: Poker question.
Post by: cath-hater on June 27, 2011, 12:16:52 AM
Issue came up in a home game.  Need a poker pro to resolve.

Player A - bets $4
Player B - calls
Player C - all in for $5

Can Player A re-raise again?
Title: Re: Poker question.
Post by: okarol on June 27, 2011, 12:31:04 AM
I need to learn how to play poker.
I hope you get an answer.
Title: Re: Poker question.
Post by: cath-hater on June 27, 2011, 09:20:48 AM
Yeah. Poker is a great past time with friends. We've played our home games for about 15 years now, I would say. And in those 15 years, I can't believe we still face this issue. You'd think we'd know the definitive answer by now on all poker questions.

My take is that NO, Player A cannot raise again, because the all-in bet is not considered a full raise and therefore, does NOT re-open betting. Any poker players, chime in here.
Title: Re: Poker question.
Post by: kitkatz on June 27, 2011, 04:00:40 PM
From Google:

All-in call
If you wish to call, but do not have enough chips, you can call by betting all the chips you have. The pot is then divided: the main pot contains your bet and equal amounts of chips from all active players. A separate side pot is created, which contains all the extra chips bet by active players who put in more than you. Any players whose turn comes after yours and before that of the player whose bet you were calling will have to put part of their call or raise in the main pot, matching your call, and the remainder in the side pot. You are entitled to hold your cards and take part in the showdown without betting any more chips, but at the showdown you are only in contention for the main pot, so you cannot win more from any one opponent than the amount of your own bet.
Title: Re: Poker question.
Post by: cath-hater on June 28, 2011, 09:28:33 AM
Thanks kitkatz for your attempt, but not the answer I needed. I know about all-ins and side pots. My question doesn't ask if Player A can go all in, but can he re-raise?  Since Player C's all-in was not a complete raise, can Player A still re-raise? You might be confused, that's why I need a seasoned poker player on this one. Anyone a regular poker player on this forum?
Title: Re: Poker question.
Post by: YLGuy on June 28, 2011, 09:40:04 AM
I believe I may have your answer.  Since player C went all in basically what they did was see player A's bet and raised $1. That would then allow player A to re-raise. Since player C is already all in any additional bet would be a side pot between player A & player B.  If player B does not call or re-raise they would have to fold and Player A would keep their re-raise and the hand would be determined between player A & player C.
Are you planning on going to Vegas ?
Title: Re: Poker question.
Post by: YLGuy on June 28, 2011, 09:54:42 AM
Sorry:

Player B has 3 choices after Player A re-raises. Fold: Then Player A would take back their re-raise and the hand would be played between A & C. Call: The re-raise and the call would be put in a side pot and the best hand between A & C would win the side pot and the main pot would be played by all. Re-raise: Player C could re-raise player A'a re-raise. Then player A would have to...you guessed it: Fold, call or re-raise.
Title: Re: Poker question.
Post by: cath-hater on June 28, 2011, 11:20:34 AM
So you're saying that since Player C raised it by ONLY a $1, that counts as a full raise and opens up betting again for Player A?  It doesn't sound right to me, but I'm not sure.  So if Player C had only $4.01, that would still count as a full raise and open up betting again for Player A?  I'm not sure if raising it by $.01 or $1 even should count as a full raise. Doesn't he have to double the bet to count as a legit raise?

My thing is that Player A gets to act twice just because Player C raised it by a $1.
Title: Re: Poker question.
Post by: YLGuy on June 28, 2011, 12:02:06 PM
It is correct.  A raise is a raise and opens the betting.  The .01 argument would fall if the table had minimum standards (which is usually the blinds if it is Hold 'em) and the player had more money. If the player only had $4.01 on the table then the $4.01 bet would be considered a call and a raise.  I play poker online for fake money and have turned $5,000 into over 1.2 million.  My aunt and uncle used to own a casino in Nevada and we used to play family games with them when they visited. The answer I posted is most definitely correct.   
Title: Re: Poker question.
Post by: cookie2008 on June 29, 2011, 12:51:07 PM
Player A can raise again as long as player B has chips since player C is all in.
Title: Re: Poker question.
Post by: YLGuy on June 29, 2011, 02:27:10 PM
In the scenario player B calls so he has to have more chips otherwise we would have been told that player B went all in.